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Question to Christian readers

Posted in Skepdude by Skepdude on March 10, 2009

I have a question to ask our Christian readers. This is something that has been bothering me for a while. Maybe it is a misconception or a misunderstanding, but either way I’m throwing it out there for comments:

If we are born sinful because of the original sin perpetrated by Adam and Eve, and if Jesus died on the cross for our sins (presumably absolving us of our sins) does that mean that any human born after Jesus died and was, allegedly, resurrected born free of sin? If not why not? Wasn’t that the purpose of Jesus’ death on the cross?